This study was started 11/23/2014 (https://www.facebook.com/giscardnazon/posts/10152932988867526). With this edit today 10/01//2015, the entire text has been subject to revision. And though started first, this is the third of a series of studies I have made on the topic of marriage (and its complications). It was not devised to become a "pdf" or authoritative study on the topics in it. It is firstly a personal study and is not published to be taken as a basis for marital counseling in any situation without counseling from Yahuah. The KJV translation of the bible was used as the basis for this study when it was started. As of today, I have been exposed to other translations like the ISR98 which I have referenced. I have also replaced "the LORD" in the KJV text with Yahuah to reflect the current state of the renewing of my mind.
Jesus was not correcting Moses. He was correcting the Pharisees' interpretation and application of the instructions given by Moses.
Matthew: 19:3-12 3. The Pharisees also came unto him, (( tempting him )), and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife (( for every cause? ))
//That is nowhere to be found in God's law. //Jesus retorts, "Have you not read?" assuming they could and should have read and understood what was written (and we should, too):
4. And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5. And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6. Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
7. They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
//It was an allowance, not a commandment. And it was because of the hardness of their hearts:
8. He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts (( suffered you to put away your wives )): but from the beginning it was not so.
//Jesus gives the precision on when the putting away was permitted. And it would not have taken place without a a writing of divorcement being given to the wife being put away.
9. And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication (whoring), and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
//The "wife" in verses 8 must be considered from the bethrotal period and onward. I only found Deuteronomy 24:1-4 to address this matter of bill of divorcement given by a man to his wife. If that is the passage Jesus is expounding on before the Pharisees and his disciples when He gives the precept in Matthew 19:9, they are either both be in full agreement, against the Pharisees perverted teaching OR we are not understanding correctly what Jesus is saying if we hold his teaching as being contrary to what is written in the law. We cannot hold to that view unless we have a perverted view of the law of God to being with, being biased against it. Jesus was not against teaching Moses or against the people hearing the law of Moses or the Prophets - who by the way understood it (Luke 16:31; Matthew 5:17-19), but He warned against the scribes and Pharisees who were poor examples with respect to practicing what they preached (Matthew 23:1-3). Moses was not in error to teach what he taught. He did not give the law. It is the law of God given by his servant Moses (Nehemiah 9:14; 10:29), hence the name. I believe Moses did not teach his own thoughts.
//Moses did not give a commandment to put away one's wife, but an allowance. The reason was because of the hardness of hearts. That should not be the heart condition of a born again Christian/believer in the Messiah, one who obeys the law of God (Romans 7:1-3), even having in written on his/her heart by the Spirit (2 Corinthians 3:3); so the fornication (whoring) of a wife, though a permitted cause to put her away and divorce her, is not unforgivable. Jesus is for forgiveness and reconciliation. And refusing to forgive is fact an unforgivable sin (Matthew 6:12, 14-15; Matthew 18:21-35).
It is important as we apply scriptures to validate that we speak of two married people who had been redeemed of their sins so to live as God's people, keeping his commandments, and loving his law like David (Psalm 1:2; Psalm 119:77) and Paul (Romans 7:22).
There is a reason why had to study this matter again.
Hebrews: 13. 4. Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.
The context is marriage. Whoremongers (and whores), and adulterers (and adulteteresses) God will judge.
whoremonger = fornicator (a man) - Greek: pornos (G4205) whore (a woman) - Greek: porne (G5205)
That does not place us in a pre-marital (bethrotal) period necessarily. Whoremonger and whores commit the act of whoredom / fornication.
God will judge marital unfaithfulness to the fullest extent. Trangressors must repent. God will have mercy on those who understand they have offended Him first of all by breaking his law, and who regret their sins, confess and forsake them.
Matthew 19:9-12 9. And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. 10. His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry. 11. But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. 12. For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.
Deuteronomy: 24:1-4 1. When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some *uncleanness* (‛ervâh) H6172 in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. 3. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife; 4. Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before Yahuah: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which Yahuah thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.
How does a man "find some uncleanness" (‛ervâh) H6172 in his wife? The same word in Leviticus 18 is translated 'nakedness' instead and referenced in many prohibitions against incestuous relationships (Leviticus 18:6-16). (Note: As of this edit today 10/01//2015, I am using the ISR98 translation that reads "uncoveredness" in Deuteronomy 24:1.) And in Leviticus 18:19 for instance it is another word (ṭûm'âh) that is translated "uncleanness".
Leviticus 18:19 19 Also thou shalt not approach H7126 unto a woman H802 to uncover H1540 her nakedness (‛ervâh) H6172, as long as she is put apart H5079 for her uncleanness (ṭûm'âh) H2932.
Uncleanness in English is filthiness, the quality of what has been defiled. I gather from other translations that Leviticus 18:19 is referring to a woman possibly during her period.
H6172 Original: ערוה Transliteration: ‛ervâh Phonetic: er-vaw' BDB Definition: nakedness, nudity, shame, pudenda pudenda (implying shameful exposure) nakedness of a thing, indecency, improper behaviour exposed, undefended (figuratively)
H2932 Original: טמאה Transliteration: ṭûm'âh Phonetic: toom-aw' BDB Definition: uncleanness a. sexual b. of filthy mass c. ethical and religious d. ritual e. local (of nations)
What of uncleanness/nakedness (er-vaw') in a wife being grounds for divorce? Looking at more verses...
Ezechiel 22:10 In thee have they discovered (uncovered) H1540 their fathers' H1 nakedness H6172: in thee have they humbled H6031 her that was set apart H5079 for pollution H2931.
So uncovering of nakedness may result in finding uncleanness in a wife?
But how do you do that to your father like it's a passive thing to him?
Genesis 19:30-38 could be an example, when the daughters of Lot had him drunk and laid with him... they uncovered his nakedness, didn't they?
(Note: As of this edit today 10/01/2015, I believe the KJV translators could have been more precise in using the word "nakedness" rather than "uncleanness" in Deuteronomy 24:1)
Exodus 20:26 Neither shalt thou go up H5927 by steps H4609 unto mine altar H4196, that thy nakedness H6172 be not discovered H1540 thereon.
One's nakedness is what should not be shown/exposed in a particular context or under certain circumstances. This comment is for the verse above. I see the same for the verse below, as the nakedness is applied to Jerusalem. There is "entering into her sanctuary" involved/implied here along with the fact that her nakedness was seen. This is another passage that uses both nakedness and filthiness (uncleanness)
Lamentations 1:8-10 8 Jerusalem hath grievously sinned; therefore she is removed: all that honoured her despise her, because they have seen her nakedness (H6172: ‛ervâh): yea, she sigheth, and turneth backward. 9 Her filthiness (H2932: ṭûm'âh) is in her skirts; she remembereth not her last end; therefore she came down wonderfully: she had no comforter. O Yahuah, behold my affliction: for the enemy hath magnified himself. 10 The adversary hath spread out his hand upon all her pleasant things: for she hath seen that the heathen entered into her sanctuary, whom thou didst command that they should not enter into thy congregation.
(Note: As of this edit today 10/01/2015, reading "Her filthiness (H2932: ṭûm'âh) is in her skirts", that is, "Her uncleanness is in her skirts", the idea of a defilement having taken place, and of an act of indecency, or the working of that which is “unseemly” is clear to me.
[And to clarify uncleanness (H2932) and being defiled (H2930) further, I have also stumbled upon this passage which for me (maybe not for you) puts the nail to the coffin: Numbers: 5. 19. And the priest shall charge her by an oath, and say unto the woman, If no man have lain with thee, and if thou hast not gone aside to uncleanness with another instead of thy husband, be thou free from this bitter water that causeth the curse: 20. But if thou hast gone aside to another instead of thy husband, and if thou be defiled, and some man have lain with thee beside thine husband]
See a recent study on uncleanness: https://www.facebook.com/giscardnazon/posts/10153728975587526)
Ezechiel 23, speaking of Aholah and Aholibah, as Samaria and Jerusalem, brings together: -woredom (H2181: zânâh) and breach of virginity (v 3) -playing the harlot (v 5: H2181: zânâh) -whoredom and defiling oneself (v 7: H2930: ṭâmê'), so becoming defiled/unclean - discovering/uncovering of nakedness (v 10: H6172: ‛ervâh)
Now were Aholah and Aholibah bethroted or married women?
Deuteronomy 24 speaks of a wife living in her husband's house being put out of her husband's house. I believe betrothed women did not live together with their betrothed husbands.
So if Jesus is discussing that passage with the Pharisees and his disciples, and they agree, they also must apply to the same context. Is there somewhere else Moses allowed husbands to give a bill of divorcement to their wives, because of uncleanness (uncovered nakedness)?
It's my understanding then that the uncleanness (uncovering of nakedness) in Deuteronomy 24 is not referring to a matter of incest being committed nor can it be solely applicable to the fornication (whoredom) that could occur during the betrothal period. And that's it for the exception clause (Matthew 19:9; Matthew 5:32).
This is the Lord's commandment to the married (Paul is writing to believers who will abide in God's word and uphold his Torah (Romans 3:31) which is not made void through faith, at least when they do get over their flesh (Romans 8:5-8):
1 Corinthians: 7:10-11, 39 10. And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: 11. But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife. 39. The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.
Other scriptures concerning the married:
Mark: 10:11-12 11. And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. 12. And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.
Luke: 16. 18. Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.
Why no exception clause is mentioned for the non-Jews, in Mark 10:11-12 and Luke 16:18 as is argued by many? Or why did the exception clause in Matthew 5:32 or 19:9 only apply to the Jews and not to the Gentiles? If the Jews had a bethrotal period to consider, that does not make whoredom (fornication) a matter that can only occur during the time a man is betrothed to his wife. The New Testament use of fornication throughout would argue against the understanding of fornication as a bethrotal period exclusive matter, and also would go against the part of the law that is being evoked (Deuteronomy 24:1-4).
And is not this the rule we live by today? ☞ "There is neither Jew nor Greek (Gentile), there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus." (Galatians 3:28)
/////// Difference between Jews and Gentiles? /////// Romans 2:17-29 17 Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest in the law, and makest thy boast of God, 18 And knowest his will, and approvest the things that are more excellent , being instructed out of the law; 19 And art confident that thou thyself art a guide of the blind, a light of them which are in darkness, 20 An instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, which hast the form of knowledge and of the truth in the law. 21 Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal , dost thou steal ? 22 Thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery , dost thou commit adultery ? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou commit sacrilege ? 23 Thou that makest thy boast of the law, through breaking the law dishonourest thou God? 24 For (( the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written. )) 25 For circumcision verily profiteth , if thou keep the law: but if thou be a breaker of the law, thy circumcision is made uncircumcision. 26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision? 27 And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law? 28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly ; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: 29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly ; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Romans 3:19-26 19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith , it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped , and all the world may become guilty before God. 20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. 21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested , being witnessed by the law and the prophets; 22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe : for there is no difference: 23 For all have sinned , and come short of the glory of God; 24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: 25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past , through the forbearance of God; 26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
This is what Jesus' disciples said, after He gave them his word on divorce and remarriage consisting in adultery, exception clause included (these men were Jews):
Matthew: 19. 10. His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.
11. But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.
Who are they to whom this saying is given? Who are they who cannot receive it? I do not see that his disciples necessarily received it, as they were in shock. And these men were Jews.
Jesus said to them: ... "He that is able to receive it, let him receive it."
Matthew: 19. 12. For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake.
I believe that to his disciples, it was a hard saying, but why?
Reminds me of this...
John 6:56, 60-61 56 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him. (...) 60 Many therefore of his disciples, when they had heard this, said , This is an (( hard saying )); who can hear it? 61 When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?
Were these Jews so accustomed to the idea that they could put away their wives for any reason (Matthew 19:3), that establishing then that whoredom was the only valid reason for divorce made it seem to them that it was better (( for a man )) not to marry at all? Were they regenerated men yet?
I believe Paul had the same understanding of what Jesus taught when He wrote:
1 Corinthians 7:27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.
1 Corinthians: 7. 1. Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. 2. Nevertheless, (( to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. ))
Fornication is clearly a reference to pre-marital whoredom / "whoremongering", here.
How do you call cheating on your husband/wife while not putting him/her away, and not marrying another man/woman? Is it not playing the harlot/the whoremonger also (i.e. committing fornication)? By Jesus' definition, it is adultery if a man has not put away his wife for the only cause of fornication, nor given her a writing of divorcement, and had "married another".
What then? The transgression of the betrothed wife committing fornication (whoredom) can have consequences but not the transgression of the married woman? What's the difference? Why not the same standard of mercy required of the betrothed husband towards his betrothed wife who commits fornication (whoredom) as in the case of his marriage covenant wife? Is the heart always harder before marriage (during the betrothal) than after? I think not. I believe it would be harder for a blood-bought servant of the Most High to quickly dismiss a whoring wife, let's say a "sister" even who has lost her ways, than a woman, a "sister" still, that he is committed to be married with (as in being betrothed). In either of these situations is the place of forgiveness taken away (note the precise persons here involved).
What of all the men who were allowed to put away their wives (not betrothed wives) out of their houses under Moses? Did Moses allow them to disobey God, so to commit sin in doing so? Was that the "allowance", with him saying: "Because of the hardness of your hearts, you may commit sin."? Was Moses therefore a minister of sin, like some make Jesus a minister of sin (Galatians 2:17), being found sinners when they should be walking in holiness and righteousness (Romans 6:16-19)?
Hebrews: 13. 4. Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.
Metanoia, the Greek word for repentance would probably have killed me if the Holy Spirit did not convict me and led me to act upon a full understanding of the Hebrew meaning of the word for repentance even before I could put it in words.
I believe we may have fallen in the same Greek trap in our translation and definition of porneia, the Greek word for fornication, by confining it to a time period (sex before marriage/during betrothal) regardless of context. I submit this to your own consideration, if you are reading. It is clear that the supposed fornication of Mary was during the betrothal period, and Joseph would have been in his right to put her away. That is clear enough.
Questions: -How Moses' actual teaching can differ from Christ's on the permission to put away one's wife? -Why seemingly two standards of mercy, for the Jew during betrothal and the Jew during marriage, and for the Jew on one hand and the Gentile on the other hand?
Galatians 3:27-29 27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. 29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.
"Till death do us apart"
Romans: 7:1-3, 4-6 1. Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law, (what law?)) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth? 2. For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. 3. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.
I add the rest because it's a comparison: 4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law (what law? how?), by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God. 5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death. 6 But now we are delivered from the law that being dead wherein we were held ; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.
This may be enlightening to some: https://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=10153441081347526&set=a.10151654090182526.1073741825.501012525
Other concordance references:
H8457 Original: תּזנת תּזנוּת Transliteration: taznûth taznûth Phonetic: taz-nooth' Origin: from H2181 BDB Definition: fornication, harlotry
H2181 Original: זנה Transliteration: zânâh Phonetic: zaw-naw' BDB Definition: to commit fornication, be a harlot, play the harlot (Qal) to be a harlot, act as a harlot, commit fornication to commit adultery to be a cult prostitute to be unfaithful (to God) (figuratively) (Pual) to play the harlot (Hiphil) to cause to commit adultery to force into prostitution to commit fornication
H2930 Original: טמא Transliteration: ṭâmê' Phonetic: taw-may' BDB Definition: to be unclean, become unclean, become impure (Qal) to be or become unclean sexually religiously ceremonially (Niphal) to defile oneself, be defiled sexually by idolatry ceremonially to be regarded as unclean (Piel) to defile sexually religiously ceremonially to pronounce unclean, declare unclean (ceremonially) to profane (God's name) (Pual) to be defiled (Hithpael) to be unclean (Hothpael) to be defiled
12/22/2014, 10/01/2015 Marriage divorce adultery
A divorced woman is one who was put away for fornication (whoredom) and given a bill of divorcement. There is no other reason or manner allowed for divorce. If another man marries a woman who was put away yet not divorced, he commits adultery together with the woman - that is his neighbor's wife. The husband is allowed to put away the woman for the cause of fornication (whoredom), but can also forgive her. If a woman puts away her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.
Audience for sharing: them who know the law, who can "hear it", who do not turn their ears from hearing it (Proverbs 28:9).
Further renewing of my mind should solidify and/or correct the understanding here expressed.
Romans 12:1-2 1 I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that you present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service. 2And be not conformed to this world: but be transformed by the renewing of your mind, that you may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.
Marriage Study 1/3 - part 1 https://www.facebook.com/notes/giscard-nazon/marriage-study-13/10153180606217211
Marriage Study 1/3 - part 2 https://www.facebook.com/notes/giscard-nazon/marriage-study-13-part-2/10153536567012211
Marriage Study 2/3 https://www.facebook.com/notes/giscard-nazon/marriage-study-23/10153218424362211